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Talk:Purchasing power parity

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Please delete or rewrite this page. It is written in a non-encyclopedic style and factually inaccurate as the article assumes GDP per capita means individual income, which it absolutely does not. While Japan having higher GDP per capita would not mean the Japanese are more affluent, Japan having higher GDP (PPP) per capita wouldn't mean that either, it just means the Japanese economy is more profitable even in terms normalized with respect to purchasing power. --Chhildeb (talk) 12:42, 29 September 2019 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks for not deleting this page. Last time, I was in the middle of working on this page, I saved it, and when I came back, I found it on the deletion log. Shuttlecockfc (talk) 23:20, 22 January 2008 (UTC)[reply]

Maybe up front it should be made clear that a higher PPP is "better" - since a reader might think that a higher PPP might mean a higher , rather than lower, CoL. This is made clear down in the Japan/US example, but I think it should also be briefly stated with-out the example in the second paragraph of the intro. (talk) 07:17, 2 March 2013 (UTC)[reply]

first paragraph[change source]

1. The first paragraph does not even TRY to say what PPP is. All it says is that it is the second of two ways of measuring GDP, without any indication of how or why it does that. I am NOT in favor of a confusing intro like that used in Wik/en, but can't some economics student write a simple sentence *in the first paragraph* giving us some idea of what it is / how it differs from nominal GDP? 2. For what it's worth, the first sentence of Wik/en doesn't talk about measuring GDP; rather, it says that PPP is a way of comparing *currencies.* Kdammers (talk) 16:53, 18 May 2015 (UTC)[reply]